Submitted by mrmonkey on Tue, 10/17/2017 - 16:01
I don't understand how you can show that exe−x=1? I understand that because of the differentiation it must be a constant, and that when x=0,ex=1, but how does this show that exe−x=1? I am possibly just being thick, or perhaps something is assumed which I thought wasn't meant to be?
Constant function
We have that the derivative is constant (for anyone stuck here, take a=1 and b=−1 in the first result in this part).
Hence we have exe−x=c for some c. Substituting x=0 gives:
e0e−0=ce0e0=c1×1=c1=c
Hence we have c=1 and exe−x=1.