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Assignment 22 Q2iv

I don't understand how you can show that exex=1? I understand that because of the differentiation it must be a constant, and that when x=0,ex=1, but how does this show that exex=1? I am possibly just being thick, or perhaps something is assumed which I thought wasn't meant to be?

We have that the derivative is constant (for anyone stuck here, take a=1 and b=1 in the first result in this part).

Hence we have exex=c for some c. Substituting x=0 gives:
e0e0=ce0e0=c1×1=c1=c
Hence we have c=1 and exex=1.

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